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Can the regression result and its marginal effects give absolutely same results???
This is my example
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opened on: 31 Jul 2017, 21:32:21
. xttobit index L.Notice CPCB CSRcommittee MNC Parent Union Iso9001 Export L.award AH L.PATENTFILED sqage logsales COACT i.STATEID ,ll(0)
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closed on: 31 Jul 2017, 21:34:52
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Kindly guide on the same
Dear Professor Silva,
I read this thread because I have issues like Luca’s ones, but I would need some further clarifications. I ran xtpoisson with RE and vce cluster (before I ran hausman test to check whether using FE or RE), however after having read your replies I decided to try to run a pooled poisson with vce cluster. The results, both coefficients and p-values, are the same, while the AIC of the pooled poisson is slightly smaller. I also tested the goodness of fit of the pooled poisson and it seems to fit quite well. My questions are three:
Is it normal to have the same results?
If it is ok, are you suggesting using the pooled poisson instead of the xtpoisson, re as I understood from one of your replies?
Could you kindly provide some references for the choice of pooled poisson over xtpoisson, re?
It is difficult to comment without seeing your results, but I would not use a Poisson RE estimator. The beauty of Poisson regression (with or without FE) is its robustness, but that is lost if you use RE (unless T is very large). So, I would stick to either Poisson regression or Poisson regression with FE.
Dear Professor Silva,
Thank you for your reply. I decided for fe, it ultimately seems more consistent. However, I have another question: could you kindly provide some references for margins after xtpoisson, fe? As I understood from your past replies, looking at margins after xtpoisson, fe is not useful, but I cannot grasp why.
Thank you again
Best wishes,
Francesco
If you are using a fixed effects estimator, -margins- will not give you any interesting results. Also, you cannot do predictions. The reason is simple: all of these depend on fixed effects and we do not have consistent estimates for them. Setting the FE at some value is meaningless because the result will depend on the way you measure your regressors. For example, if in the model in #1 we replace age with year of birth the results of -margins- and predictions will change.
In short, do not do it! In the Poisson case the coefficients have a natural interpretation and that should be enough.
All the best,
Joao
Dear Joao,
In your comment #4, you advise not to calculate the marginal effect when using Poisson regression. And then you add: “In the Poisson case the coefficients have a natural interpretation and that should be enough.”
Thank you so much for making us realize this fundamental issue.
What if there are interaction terms and one is interested in finding the (marginal) effect of one individual variable? The effect of an individual variable can only be obtained by using the marginal effects.
For instance, in the regression y = a + b x1 + c x2 + d x1 x2, we want to know the (marginal) effect of x1.
In my case, I am interested in a fixed-effects regression. So, is it right to say that in this case, we may have to give up using a fixed-effects Poisson regression and instead use a linear fixed effects regression?
Osiris
What the FE Poisson regression gives you in this case is the elasticity with respect to x1, which is varies with x2. I would say that this has a meaningful interpretation, and therefore you do not need to compute a partial effect.
Thank you, Joao, for your prompt response.
Yes, getting the elasticity would be good enough. Continuing with the same example I provided in my previous post, i.e.,
y = a + b x1 + c x2 + d x1 x2
Let’s say the estimated regression coefficients are as follows: b=0.5 and d=–0.3, and both are statistically significant. In this case, is it right to calculate the elasticity of y with respect to x1, for x2=1.1, in the following way?
Elasticity = 0.5 – 0.3 1.1 = 0.5 – 0.33 = 0.17
Also, how can I estimate whether this point estimation of the elasticity (0.17) is significant or not?
Thank you again, Joao, and apologies for my delayed answer. I thought I set my Stata account for the response to be announced via email, but apparently, I did not do it properly.
Osiris
Thank you, Joao,
I now see that using lincom solves the problem of calculating the significance of the elasticity.
Please allow me another question in relation to the same fixed-effects regression with interaction terms:
y = a + b x1 + c x2 + d x1 x2
Would the elasticity still have a meaningful interpretation if the variable x1 is a dummy variable (having 0s and 1s)?
Clearly, a significant negative or positive elasticity will be meaningful. But beyond that, I am not sure how to interpret the elasticity of y with respect to x1 in this case because the percentage change from 0 to 1 is equal to infinity.
Thank you again,
Osiris
I need to correct What I said above. The coefficient is an elasticity when the regressor is in logs, otherwise it is a semi-elasticity. So, if x1 is a binary variable or any variable in levels, the coefficient is a semi-elasticity, and it is an elasticity if the is in logs. Sorry about the oversight.
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