In assessing the aggregate effect of the China shock, Acemoglu, Autor, Dorn, Hanson and Price, the authors use the increase in import penetration in a few other countries as an IV to predict import penetration increases in the US, and thus US job losses.
To get jobs lost in one sector, of course, they multiply the beta from the 2nd stage by the Instrument (page S160). And then they sum. Interestingly, they then multiply by the first-stage R-squared.
My question is, is it necessary to multiply the magnitude in an IV regression by the first stage R-square? Is it only necessary when summing the results across sectors, or also when interpreting the magnitude of an individual beta? (The answer to the latter question seems like clearly not.) If so, why?
To get jobs lost in one sector, of course, they multiply the beta from the 2nd stage by the Instrument (page S160). And then they sum. Interestingly, they then multiply by the first-stage R-squared.
My question is, is it necessary to multiply the magnitude in an IV regression by the first stage R-square? Is it only necessary when summing the results across sectors, or also when interpreting the magnitude of an individual beta? (The answer to the latter question seems like clearly not.) If so, why?
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