Hi all,
Can someone please guide me with interpreting ''negative Cramer's V''
I am trying to find the association between the independent variable (gender) and dependent (purchase behaviour (PQ_new) and I run the following code
tabulate PQ_new gender_1_0, chi2 row V
Cramér's V = -0.0846
A normal Cramer's V ranges between 0 and 1. My concern is this negative value. How to interpret these results? From chi2 value it is clear that gender and purchasing behaviour are not associated.
It would be great if someone could help me.
Thank you
Can someone please guide me with interpreting ''negative Cramer's V''
I am trying to find the association between the independent variable (gender) and dependent (purchase behaviour (PQ_new) and I run the following code
tabulate PQ_new gender_1_0, chi2 row V
PQ_new | gender | ||
Male | Female | Total | |
No | 30 | 87 | 117 |
25.64 | 74.36 | 100.00 | |
Yes | 111 | 210 | 321 |
34.58 | 65.42 | 100.00 | |
Total | 141 | 297 | 438 |
32.19 | 67.81 | 100.00 | |
Pearson Chi2 = 3.14 Prob = 0.0765 |
A normal Cramer's V ranges between 0 and 1. My concern is this negative value. How to interpret these results? From chi2 value it is clear that gender and purchasing behaviour are not associated.
It would be great if someone could help me.
Thank you
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