This is not a particularly a STATA question, rather a general Econometrics question, but...
Does the correlation of an independent variable with the residuals (the misspecified model: an omitted variable, that is correlated with the existing independent variable in the model, is considered in the residuals) automatically mean that the ceteris paribus assumption does not hold?
From my understanding, when there is a correlation between the stated explanatory variable (x1) and the omitted variable (ux), then as x1 changes, the residuals will also change, which means that the ceteris paribus assumption can not be held. Do I understand those concepts correctly, or are there is any other theory that I have overlooked?
Thank you.
Does the correlation of an independent variable with the residuals (the misspecified model: an omitted variable, that is correlated with the existing independent variable in the model, is considered in the residuals) automatically mean that the ceteris paribus assumption does not hold?
From my understanding, when there is a correlation between the stated explanatory variable (x1) and the omitted variable (ux), then as x1 changes, the residuals will also change, which means that the ceteris paribus assumption can not be held. Do I understand those concepts correctly, or are there is any other theory that I have overlooked?
Thank you.
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