I am seeking to exploit a natural experiment in my paper.
Am I right in thinking that matching estimators make sense because treatment and control groups are divided purely based on the criteria of date of registering. So, there is no observed/unobserved factors that enhance the propensity of treatment of one user vs. the other.
Best,
gr
- Retrospective treatment: i.e., announcement of treatment came after the users have chosen a date to register (Jan 16 announcement that anyone who registered prior to Jan 1 gets free rewards)
- So, I took users who joined the platform +-2 days around Jan 1 to get treatment and control groups.
- For causal inference, though I have treatment and control groups, I do not have pre-treatment data.
Am I right in thinking that matching estimators make sense because treatment and control groups are divided purely based on the criteria of date of registering. So, there is no observed/unobserved factors that enhance the propensity of treatment of one user vs. the other.
Best,
gr
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