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I have a dataset with 6,465 variables, where independent variables vary in time, whereas the dependent variable is time-invariant. I take 2019-2021 as observation years and I have the variable Severity of loss, which is calculated by using stock codes from all 3 years (2019-2021). However, this variable has the same value for all 3 years. I would like to use industry and year fixed effects and found out that -reghdfe- can be used. I am taking -reghdfe Severityofloss independentvariables, absorb(year industrycode). Can I run this regression without dropping 2 years even if Severityofloss does not vary over time?
I have a dataset with 6,465 variables, where independent variables vary in time, whereas the dependent variable is time-invariant. I take 2019-2021 as observation years and I have the variable Severity of loss, which is calculated by using stock codes from all 3 years (2019-2021). However, this variable has the same value for all 3 years. I would like to use industry and year fixed effects and found out that -reghdfe- can be used. I am taking -reghdfe Severityofloss independentvariables, absorb(year industrycode). Can I run this regression without dropping 2 years even if Severityofloss does not vary over time?
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