Hi! I'm running a fixed effects regression (within group method) in which two of my explanatory variables are time-varying dummy variables. For example, employment status=1 if the individual is employed and 0 otherwise (the periods in my data are not consecutive years so there is variation across time for some individuals in terms of employment). I understand that using the within group transformation, we time-demean the explanatory variables. I understand this in the case of continuous variables where we get the average of the data for individual i across time then subtract it from the value for that individual i at time t. But I'm not sure if that works for time-varying dummy variables (and if that makes sense) as I don't get the intuition behind it. I can't get an answer anywhere as all of the resources/video tutorials I've consulted all use continuous time-varying explanatory variables as examples.
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