Dear all,
I am currently using a static dataset featuring a group of individuals performing an action with intensity from 0.01 to 1. Each individual has been allocated to a group and I have some information about individuals' demographic and personal features.
I am interested into assessing the role of group participation into individual decision making.
For this reason, I run a simple xtreg, fe . I then collected the FE for each group, created a quantile distribution and then plotted the quantile distribution against the average action of individuals for each group.
The result is contained in this picture: https://ibb.co/wsdBKrn
My question is: am I allowed to think that there is a positive association between the group's influence (as captured by the FE) and the average action of individuals belonging to that group? Is that a trivial result?
thank you all for your much appreciated support. This forum is helping me on so many dimensions.
I am currently using a static dataset featuring a group of individuals performing an action with intensity from 0.01 to 1. Each individual has been allocated to a group and I have some information about individuals' demographic and personal features.
I am interested into assessing the role of group participation into individual decision making.
For this reason, I run a simple xtreg, fe . I then collected the FE for each group, created a quantile distribution and then plotted the quantile distribution against the average action of individuals for each group.
The result is contained in this picture: https://ibb.co/wsdBKrn
My question is: am I allowed to think that there is a positive association between the group's influence (as captured by the FE) and the average action of individuals belonging to that group? Is that a trivial result?
thank you all for your much appreciated support. This forum is helping me on so many dimensions.
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