I estimated a Cox regression. I then ran the post estimation command estat phtest to test the proportional hazard assumption. The results indicated that one of my explanatory variables (a binary variable) violated the assumption. The variable in question was statistically significant within the Cox regression, where a value of 1 increased the hazard rate.
I re-estimated the Cox Regression, this time stratified by the variable that had violated the proportional hazard assumption. I ran estat phtest and the proportional hazard assumption is no longer violated.
My question relates to interpretation. My understanding is that with the stratified version of the model the regression coefficients are assumed to be the same for each stratum, although the baseline hazard functions will be different. Do I use the interpretation of the coefficient in the original model to comment on the baseline hazard functions within the stratified model?
As previously mentioned the variable that violated the proportional hazard assumption in the original model was statistically significant and increased the hazard rate. Would I be able to say therefore that in the stratified version that the baseline hazard will be greater for those with a value of 1 for the stratified variable, relative to those with a value of 0?
If I cannot make such a claim regarding the nature of the baseline function (beyond stating simple that they are different) is it just a case of evaluating the coefficients in the stratified model in a similar manner to the original, unstratified model?
Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.
I re-estimated the Cox Regression, this time stratified by the variable that had violated the proportional hazard assumption. I ran estat phtest and the proportional hazard assumption is no longer violated.
My question relates to interpretation. My understanding is that with the stratified version of the model the regression coefficients are assumed to be the same for each stratum, although the baseline hazard functions will be different. Do I use the interpretation of the coefficient in the original model to comment on the baseline hazard functions within the stratified model?
As previously mentioned the variable that violated the proportional hazard assumption in the original model was statistically significant and increased the hazard rate. Would I be able to say therefore that in the stratified version that the baseline hazard will be greater for those with a value of 1 for the stratified variable, relative to those with a value of 0?
If I cannot make such a claim regarding the nature of the baseline function (beyond stating simple that they are different) is it just a case of evaluating the coefficients in the stratified model in a similar manner to the original, unstratified model?
Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.
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