Sorry, I messed that up. Yes, it's true that the estimation is done on log hazard ratios. But in my calculations, I forgot to replace that 1.0106 by its logarithm, 0.01054. So, at rus = 1 and time = 1, hr = exp(0.01054*1*1) = 1.0106. At time = 2, hr = exp(0.01054*1*2) = 7.55.
For male, where the "hr" shown is 0.995, note that log(0.995) = -.005, which is negative. So for a male at time 1, we get hr = exp(-.005*1*1) = .995, and at time 2 we get hr(=exp-.005*1*2) = 0.990. At time 3 it will be exp(-.005*1*3) = .985, and so on. So, with a reported hr less than 1 we see that over time the actual hazard ratio decreases (as I imagine you expected.)
Really sorry for that error in presentation.
For male, where the "hr" shown is 0.995, note that log(0.995) = -.005, which is negative. So for a male at time 1, we get hr = exp(-.005*1*1) = .995, and at time 2 we get hr(=exp-.005*1*2) = 0.990. At time 3 it will be exp(-.005*1*3) = .985, and so on. So, with a reported hr less than 1 we see that over time the actual hazard ratio decreases (as I imagine you expected.)
Really sorry for that error in presentation.
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