I'm running time series regressions with a small dataset (about 50 obs) and wondering about correcting for auto correlation and heteroskedasticity in the same regression model. I came across past literature suggesting that it is best to correct for auto correlation first and then heteroskedasticity: thus, in a regression (where Durbin-Watson statistic was .79 and the hettest was significant and chi2=6.34) I tried to correct for auto correlation using <prais x1 x2 x3, corc> and then ran <regress x1 x2 x3, vce(robust)> to correct for heteroskedasticity. I was wondering if this is correct? Thank you for any help you can give.
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