Hi everyone,
I did a hausman test to check wether a FE or RE model would be more appropiate. However, there is presence of heteroskedasticity, thus, I would add "robust" to my regression. My question now is how reliable the result from the hausman test is as you can not perform it with robust SEs. According to the result of the hausman test, a RE model would be more appropiate, but I am pretty sure FE would be better in this case (I am using a pandel data set and look at countries). Is the result of the hausman test even valid?
I also performed the xttest0 command and concluded that there is no presence of random effects, which would confirm my suspicion of using a FE model.
Can anyone help me regarding the meaning/validation of a hausman test in presence of heteroskedasticity? Is the result valid?
Thanks!!
I did a hausman test to check wether a FE or RE model would be more appropiate. However, there is presence of heteroskedasticity, thus, I would add "robust" to my regression. My question now is how reliable the result from the hausman test is as you can not perform it with robust SEs. According to the result of the hausman test, a RE model would be more appropiate, but I am pretty sure FE would be better in this case (I am using a pandel data set and look at countries). Is the result of the hausman test even valid?
I also performed the xttest0 command and concluded that there is no presence of random effects, which would confirm my suspicion of using a FE model.
Can anyone help me regarding the meaning/validation of a hausman test in presence of heteroskedasticity? Is the result valid?
Thanks!!
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