Hello everyone! I hope you're well. Firstly, I apologize for posting a perhaps simplistic question. I'm working on trade analysis using the gravity model, specifically sectoral analysis, focusing on a particular commodity (let's call it X). At the same time, I have some understanding of the significance of intra-national trade within the structural gravity model. My confusion arises from the fact that, since I am analyzing only one commodity, some countries, although involved in export/import, may not have domestic production. In this context, my question is whether a country's ability to engage in domestic trade (intranational trade: A to A) should be considered zero or if the country pair (with itself) should be excluded. I appreciate your time! Thank you!
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