Hi Evereyone, i need a little help here with interpretation of Welch Test
i used this command
I got following results:
Now, as we are supposed to look at Ha: diff ! = 0 and its p-stat, we can see that it is 0.0006, if we convert it to %age, that becomes 6% or 0.06, implying that it is greater than 5% or 0.05. Can we now conclude that there is no significant difference between the means of control and treatment group?
please help me interpret the results
i used this command
Code:
ttest healthy, by(treatment) welch
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Code:
ttest healthy, by(treatment) welch Two-sample t test with unequal variances ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ Group | Obs Mean Std. err. Std. dev. [95% conf. interval] ---------+-------------------------------------------------------------------- 0 | 84 .5119048 .0548666 .5028604 .4027774 .6210322 1 | 2,607 .7092443 .0088956 .4541981 .6918012 .7266875 ---------+-------------------------------------------------------------------- Combined | 2,691 .7030844 .0088094 .456984 .6858106 .7203581 ---------+-------------------------------------------------------------------- diff | -.1973396 .055583 -.3078075 -.0868717 ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ diff = mean(0) - mean(1) t = -3.5504 H0: diff = 0 Welch's degrees of freedom = 87.5254 Ha: diff < 0 Ha: diff != 0 Ha: diff > 0 Pr(T < t) = 0.0003 Pr(|T| > |t|) = 0.0006 Pr(T > t) = 0.9997
Now, as we are supposed to look at Ha: diff ! = 0 and its p-stat, we can see that it is 0.0006, if we convert it to %age, that becomes 6% or 0.06, implying that it is greater than 5% or 0.05. Can we now conclude that there is no significant difference between the means of control and treatment group?
please help me interpret the results
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