I have a question regarding interpreting coefficients of independent variables in a Log-Linear model.
I am running a fixed effects regression where my dependent variable is log transformed total consumption expenditure and my main independent variable is the absolute deviation of rainfall below it’s long-term annual mean. I want to interpret my result in percentage terms, however looking at the literature and at other existing posts I am confused.
For example I look at a similar paper (How do droughts impact household food consumption and nutritional intake? A study of rural India).
The author runs regression with log dependent variables and take absolute deviation of rainfall below it’s long-term annual mean as the main independent variable. The results show a coefficient of -0.060 for the rainfall deviations variable (Table 4 of the paper). The author explains this by stating Considering a median dry shock of 0.15 m, total expenditure decreases by around 1 percent.
How is the coefficient converted to percentage terms?
I am running a fixed effects regression where my dependent variable is log transformed total consumption expenditure and my main independent variable is the absolute deviation of rainfall below it’s long-term annual mean. I want to interpret my result in percentage terms, however looking at the literature and at other existing posts I am confused.
For example I look at a similar paper (How do droughts impact household food consumption and nutritional intake? A study of rural India).
The author runs regression with log dependent variables and take absolute deviation of rainfall below it’s long-term annual mean as the main independent variable. The results show a coefficient of -0.060 for the rainfall deviations variable (Table 4 of the paper). The author explains this by stating Considering a median dry shock of 0.15 m, total expenditure decreases by around 1 percent.
How is the coefficient converted to percentage terms?
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