Hello all
I am reading a paper where the author has run a regression against the time trend. After that, he used the residual of the regression as the dependent variable of the original regression.
I have a few questions.
1. Are this method and using time as an independent variable the same?
2. We use c.time to control for time variations. Can we use i.t instead of c.t? (I think this question is foolish to ask)
Thanks and Regards
I am reading a paper where the author has run a regression against the time trend. After that, he used the residual of the regression as the dependent variable of the original regression.
I have a few questions.
1. Are this method and using time as an independent variable the same?
2. We use c.time to control for time variations. Can we use i.t instead of c.t? (I think this question is foolish to ask)
Thanks and Regards
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