Dear Statalist,
First post on here. I've read a lot of literature on the topic of controlling for multilateral resistance within a Gravity model for the application of migration. The econometric technique strongly mentioned is to 'include a time-fixed effect; and an origin time interaction term that captures multilateral resistance' (Arif 2022 - 'Educational attainment, corruption, and migration: An empirical analysis from a gravity model').
I have panel data across 20 years in 5-year intervals for migration flows by gender and educational attainment from 159 origin countries into 18 destinations.
When typing the following into the command window:
All the year fixed effects are considered redundant by Stata.
I was wondering why is this case and what's the intuition behind this?
And also is there any way to control for both time-fixed effects and include the origin-time interaction term without all the time dummies falling out of the regression, as specified in the paper cited above?
Many thanks in advance for any time invested into an answer!
First post on here. I've read a lot of literature on the topic of controlling for multilateral resistance within a Gravity model for the application of migration. The econometric technique strongly mentioned is to 'include a time-fixed effect; and an origin time interaction term that captures multilateral resistance' (Arif 2022 - 'Educational attainment, corruption, and migration: An empirical analysis from a gravity model').
I have panel data across 20 years in 5-year intervals for migration flows by gender and educational attainment from 159 origin countries into 18 destinations.
When typing the following into the command window:
Code:
reghdfe lnhigh lndistw inequality comlang_off MPI unemployment average_income if gender == "Female", absorb(o#year year) cluster(o#d)
I was wondering why is this case and what's the intuition behind this?
And also is there any way to control for both time-fixed effects and include the origin-time interaction term without all the time dummies falling out of the regression, as specified in the paper cited above?
Many thanks in advance for any time invested into an answer!
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