I suspect imperfect multicollinearity between two explanatory variables, x and y, and only variable y is individually significant but the results of a Wald test suggest they are jointly significant.
Would it be incorrect to now describe variable x which was individually insignificant, to be significant? Or is it strictly that the effect of variable x is only jointly significant with the effect of y?
Would it be incorrect to now describe variable x which was individually insignificant, to be significant? Or is it strictly that the effect of variable x is only jointly significant with the effect of y?
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