Hello,
I'm confused by a critic's comment on my model specification, so I need some help.
My model has three dimension: i(region) , j(industry), t(year).
I initially had three-way fixed effects for the baseline model, including all three dummies (separate).
But the critics suggested a two-way fixed effects model using i#j interactions and t dummies.
I understand that i#j captures more dimensions so that it would be a more restrictive model, but why would the three-way fixed effects model be uncommon?
What would be the appropriate explanations?
Any comments or the related literature would be helpful.
Thanks a lot.
Best,
Deric
I'm confused by a critic's comment on my model specification, so I need some help.
My model has three dimension: i(region) , j(industry), t(year).
I initially had three-way fixed effects for the baseline model, including all three dummies (separate).
But the critics suggested a two-way fixed effects model using i#j interactions and t dummies.
I understand that i#j captures more dimensions so that it would be a more restrictive model, but why would the three-way fixed effects model be uncommon?
What would be the appropriate explanations?
Any comments or the related literature would be helpful.
Thanks a lot.
Best,
Deric
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