Hi, I am currently analysing the gender wage gap in the UK for my dissertation. I am using data from the Labour Force Survey and have included the years 1997, 2010, and 2019, and will be looking at the wage gap at these specific points in time. I will use the Blinder-Oaxaca decomposition to see how much of the wage gap can be explained due to differences in some control variables. I am, however, having some problems with interpreting my results, as I was expecting the coefficient on the "explained" part to be positive when controlling for these variables. I am concerned that there is something wrong with my data etc. because of this, but I would be grateful if someone could help me understand my results and interpret whether this seems odd.
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