Announcement

Collapse
No announcement yet.
X
  • Filter
  • Time
  • Show
Clear All
new posts

  • Interpretation of Scaled AMEs after Fractional Response Model

    Dear All,

    I have am running a regression where both the dependent and independent variables are rates in %.

    After some reading, I opted for the fractional response model using the -fracreg- command with probit option. For this purpose, I rescaled the variables to [0,1] interval by dividing them by 100.

    After running the regression, I ran the -margins, dydx(*)- command for average marginal effects. But I am having trouble with interpretation now that my % variables are rescaled to proportions.

    For instance, if the AME of x1 is 0.002, does that mean:
    • a 1% increase in x1 will lead to a 2 percentage points rise in y?
    • a 1% increase in x1 will lead to a 0.002 percentage points rise in y?
    • a 1% increase in x1 will lead to a 2% rise in y?
    • a 1% increase in x1 will lead to a 0.002% rise in y?
    • a 0.01% increase in x1 will lead to a 2 percentage points rise in y?
    • and so on,,,
    Your help is much appreciated. Thank you..

  • #2
    The dydx() option results in additive effects, so in your case percentage points increase and not percentage. To move from proportions to percentage you multiply by 100, so 0.002*100 = 0.2 percentage points.
    ---------------------------------
    Maarten L. Buis
    University of Konstanz
    Department of history and sociology
    box 40
    78457 Konstanz
    Germany
    http://www.maartenbuis.nl
    ---------------------------------

    Comment


    • #3
      Originally posted by Maarten Buis View Post
      The dydx() option results in additive effects, so in your case percentage points increase and not percentage. To move from proportions to percentage you multiply by 100, so 0.002*100 = 0.2 percentage points.
      Thank you so much. But since my independent variables also underwent the same scaling, should I say a 1% rise in x1 or a 0.01% rise in x1 leads to a 0.2 percentage point increase in y?

      Comment


      • #4
        The easiest solution is to not rescale the explanatory/independent/right-hand-side/x-variable to a scale you don't like. Regardless, the effect is always in terms of a unit change in x. The rescaling changes the unit. For a percentage a unit is the entire theoretical range: the theoretical minimum is 0 and the theoretical maximum is 1. That is usually not that helpful. With percentages (not rescaled) the unit is 1 percentage point. That is sometimes fine, sometimes a bit too fine grained. In the later case, I usually change the unit to 10 percentage points (divide a percentage variable by 10 or multiply a proportions variable by 10).

        And again, marginal effects is all additive not multiplicative, so you do *not* get the effect in terms of percentages but in term of percentage points.
        ---------------------------------
        Maarten L. Buis
        University of Konstanz
        Department of history and sociology
        box 40
        78457 Konstanz
        Germany
        http://www.maartenbuis.nl
        ---------------------------------

        Comment


        • #5
          Originally posted by Maarten Buis View Post
          The easiest solution is to not rescale the explanatory/independent/right-hand-side/x-variable to a scale you don't like. Regardless, the effect is always in terms of a unit change in x. The rescaling changes the unit. For a percentage a unit is the entire theoretical range: the theoretical minimum is 0 and the theoretical maximum is 1. That is usually not that helpful. With percentages (not rescaled) the unit is 1 percentage point. That is sometimes fine, sometimes a bit too fine grained. In the later case, I usually change the unit to 10 percentage points (divide a percentage variable by 10 or multiply a proportions variable by 10).

          And again, marginal effects is all additive not multiplicative, so you do *not* get the effect in terms of percentages but in term of percentage points.
          Thank you for your response! I will keep the independent variables on their original scale. I understand that the effect is in percentage points, but if my independent variable is a percentage, saying a 1% rise in x1 leads to 0.2 percentage point change in y, implies 1% of the percentage variable (x1) right? Basically a percentage change of a percentage? I am so sorry if this is not clear.

          Comment


          • #6
            Saying a 1% rise means that you multiply whatever you start with by 1.01 to get a 1% increase. That is not what you are doing when you do marginal effects. Remember, marginal effects are all additive. So a unit increase means you add 1 (percentage point, foot, cow, whatever your unit is) to wherever you start. So if your explanatory/independent/right-hand-side/x-variable is measured in percentages and you compute a marginal effect, then the unit is a percentage point not a percentage.
            ---------------------------------
            Maarten L. Buis
            University of Konstanz
            Department of history and sociology
            box 40
            78457 Konstanz
            Germany
            http://www.maartenbuis.nl
            ---------------------------------

            Comment


            • #7
              Originally posted by Maarten Buis View Post
              Saying a 1% rise means that you multiply whatever you start with by 1.01 to get a 1% increase. That is not what you are doing when you do marginal effects. Remember, marginal effects are all additive. So a unit increase means you add 1 (percentage point, foot, cow, whatever your unit is) to wherever you start. So if your explanatory/independent/right-hand-side/x-variable is measured in percentages and you compute a marginal effect, then the unit is a percentage point not a percentage.
              Thank you so much for the clarification!

              Comment

              Working...
              X