Hello everyone,
I learned through this forum that comparison across groups (e.g., men vs women) using probit regressions is problematic.
Why? beacuse the variance of the residuals will be different in each group (the 2 groups may have different unobservables that have different variances) and this will show a difference in the coefficients that is due to this variance difference (since the coefficients and the error variance are not separately identified) and not because of the real difference in the effects. Right?
Now, if I have to compare 2 groups using probit regressions.
Thank you so much!
Please let me know if you need more clarifications.
I learned through this forum that comparison across groups (e.g., men vs women) using probit regressions is problematic.
Why? beacuse the variance of the residuals will be different in each group (the 2 groups may have different unobservables that have different variances) and this will show a difference in the coefficients that is due to this variance difference (since the coefficients and the error variance are not separately identified) and not because of the real difference in the effects. Right?
Now, if I have to compare 2 groups using probit regressions.
- Should I just use probit regressions and state the limitations?
- Or, should I opt for a Linear Probability Model?
- Or is it possible to compare the coefficients of the same variable between the 2 groups, while estimating the difference between the coefficients as explained by Clyde Schechter, in this post: https://www.statalist.org/forums/for...bit-regression?
Thank you so much!
Please let me know if you need more clarifications.
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