Dear Stata community
Glancing through some economics and finance journals, gives me in a impression that, most of the studies ignore the median value of a distribution and consider only top and bottom observations. I understand that median observations are very much vulnerable to misclassification but still, is there a more strong reason why we consider the top and bottom of the distribution of a variable (say income) and drop those middle parts of observations.
Glancing through some economics and finance journals, gives me in a impression that, most of the studies ignore the median value of a distribution and consider only top and bottom observations. I understand that median observations are very much vulnerable to misclassification but still, is there a more strong reason why we consider the top and bottom of the distribution of a variable (say income) and drop those middle parts of observations.
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