Hi,
I am doing a fixed effects regression (impact of geographic diversification on firm performance) on panel data for a set of firms over 20 years. The R-squared for my model is 13%. It is comparable to other research studies in this field. However, my own understanding is that R-squared for fixed effects regression would normally be lower than for OLS regression since it excludes the impact of firm-specific time-invariant factors.
I wanted to double-check my understanding of this. Is it fair to assume that fixed effects models would have a lower R-squared given the way they are constructed?
Thank you.
I am doing a fixed effects regression (impact of geographic diversification on firm performance) on panel data for a set of firms over 20 years. The R-squared for my model is 13%. It is comparable to other research studies in this field. However, my own understanding is that R-squared for fixed effects regression would normally be lower than for OLS regression since it excludes the impact of firm-specific time-invariant factors.
I wanted to double-check my understanding of this. Is it fair to assume that fixed effects models would have a lower R-squared given the way they are constructed?
Thank you.
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