Hello everyone,
I'm currently assessing the impact of financial openness on growth with a panel regression.
My dependent variable is GDP and I use the initial value of the GDP (INGDP) at the start year of the study for each country among the set of the explanatory variables in order to control for the convergence effect.
The question is, the relation between INGDP and GDP should be negative but i got a positive relation in my result ?
I've tried different approaches with my data but i still receive a positive relation.
Any insights ?
Thanks
I'm currently assessing the impact of financial openness on growth with a panel regression.
My dependent variable is GDP and I use the initial value of the GDP (INGDP) at the start year of the study for each country among the set of the explanatory variables in order to control for the convergence effect.
The question is, the relation between INGDP and GDP should be negative but i got a positive relation in my result ?
I've tried different approaches with my data but i still receive a positive relation.
Any insights ?
Thanks
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