Dear all,
Please, I have two questions related to the logit and marginal effects interpretations.
Please, I have two questions related to the logit and marginal effects interpretations.
- ) one of the pervious literatures (the author used logit model) and the coefficient on X is = -1.08. So in this case, he must say that a 1% increase in x is associated with a decrease of 1.08 in the odds of y. right? But he said a 10% increase in X is associated with a decrease of 11% in the odds of y. Well, my question is that there is something or any idea behind his interpretation instead of the normal interpretation? I know that at the end the same amount of probability, but I would like to know from you if there is any idea behind that. Thanks
- I would like to get the Average Marginal Effects for a Continuous variable after run a binary logit regression. Please, do you agree/advice with that or it’s better to get the Marginal effects at means? Thank you so much.
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