Dear Statalist users,
This is my first post here and sorry in advance if the post does not fully comply with the advices on posting.
I run the following regression:
ivreg2 lfood self_employed_1 self_employed_1#i.year log_income_diff age agesq lnhh housesq i.year (lperm = private_car sex)
I have the following regression output:
The interaction coefficients for self_employed_1*i.year are not statistically significant 2005, 2007-2013, and 2016. So, effect of self_employed_1 on lfood is same in these yars and the base year (2017).
However, when I use lincom, the joint coefficients of these interaction terms with self_employed_1 is statistically significant at 1% level. For example for year 2005, I have:
My question is the following:
How should I interpret these results? Should I interpret there is no change of under-reporting in year 2005 relative to the baseline year 2017 because the interaction coefficient is not significant and impact of self_employment_1 on lfood in year 2005 is .03577?
Or should I look at the results from lincom and say the impact of self_employment_1 on lfood in year 2005 is .0440057?
I am little confused and your help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you.
This is my first post here and sorry in advance if the post does not fully comply with the advices on posting.
I run the following regression:
ivreg2 lfood self_employed_1 self_employed_1#i.year log_income_diff age agesq lnhh housesq i.year (lperm = private_car sex)
I have the following regression output:
lfood | Coef. | Std. Err. | z | P>z | [95% Conf. | Interval] |
lperm | .2890392 | .0059375 | 48.68 | 0.000 | .2774019 | .3006766 |
self_employed_1 | .03577 | .0073481 | 4.87 | 0.000 | .021368 | .0501719 |
self_employed_1#rok | ||||||
1 2005 | .0082357 | .010991 | 0.75 | 0.454 | -.0133062 | .0297776 |
1 2006 | .0190306 | .0107994 | 1.76 | 0.078 | -.0021358 | .040197 |
1 2007 | .007384 | .0106777 | 0.69 | 0.489 | -.0135438 | .0283119 |
1 2008 | .0069638 | .010619 | 0.66 | 0.512 | -.013849 | .0277767 |
1 2009 | .0049704 | .0105409 | 0.47 | 0.637 | -.0156893 | .0256301 |
1 2010 | .0025309 | .0101807 | 0.25 | 0.804 | -.0174229 | .0224848 |
1 2011 | -.0074874 | .0102216 | -0.73 | 0.464 | -.0275215 | .0125466 |
1 2012 | .0129113 | .0102845 | 1.26 | 0.209 | -.0072459 | .0330685 |
1 2013 | .0061358 | .010411 | 0.59 | 0.556 | -.0142694 | .0265411 |
1 2014 | .0287141 | .0104055 | 2.76 | 0.006 | .0083198 | .0491084 |
1 2015 | .0187668 | .0104033 | 1.80 | 0.071 | -.0016233 | .039157 |
1 2016 | -.0033278 | .0102994 | -0.32 | 0.747 | -.0235142 | .0168587 |
1 2017 | 0 | (omitted) | ||||
However, when I use lincom, the joint coefficients of these interaction terms with self_employed_1 is statistically significant at 1% level. For example for year 2005, I have:
( | 1) | self_employed_1 + 1.self_employed_1#2005b.rok = | 0 |
lfood Coef. Std. Err. z P>z | [95% Conf. | Interval] | |
(1) .0440057 .0082907 5.31 0.000 | .0277561 | .0602552 | |
How should I interpret these results? Should I interpret there is no change of under-reporting in year 2005 relative to the baseline year 2017 because the interaction coefficient is not significant and impact of self_employment_1 on lfood in year 2005 is .03577?
Or should I look at the results from lincom and say the impact of self_employment_1 on lfood in year 2005 is .0440057?
I am little confused and your help would be greatly appreciated.
Thank you.
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