Dear Statalisters:
My question is regarding whether I should stick to OLS when no endogeneity is detected in my model.
I'm estimating the effect of some individual personality traits on individual performance. My N is above 300 and the OLS structure is as follows:
reg y x1 x2 x3 x4 x1x2 x1x3 x2x3 x1x2x3
where:
y -- dependent var (performance)
x1, x2, x3 -- explanatory vars (personality traits)
x4 -- vector of control vars
x1x2, x1x3, x2x3 -- 2way interaction terms
x1x2x3 -- 3way interaction term
Now, I'm told that x1 and x2 may be endogenous (there's not enough theoretical reason for that). I found 2 instrumental vars -- z1 and z2 (1 each for x1 and x2) -- and conducted IV regression by using Stata's own module and the extended version proposed by Baum, Schaffer, & Stillman.
1. Stata module:
ivregress 2sls y x4 (x1 x2 x1x2 x1x3 x2x3 x1x2x3 = z1 z2 z1z2 z1x3 z2x3 z1z2x3)
estat endog
The tests of endogeneity suggest that x1 and x2 are not endogenous.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Durbin (score) chi2(6) = 1.40071 (p = 0.9658)
Wu-Hausman F(6,339) = .222554 (p = 0.9694)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Baum et al. module:
ivreg2 y x4 (x1 x2 x1x2 x1x3 x2x3 x1x2x3 = z1 z2 z1z2 z1x3 z2x3 z1z2x3), endog (x1 x2)
Again, the tests suggest no endogeneity.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Wu-Hausman F test: 0.22255 F(6,339) P-value = 0.96938
Durbin-Wu-Hausman chi-sq test: 1.40071 Chi-sq(6) P-value = 0.96582
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
While the results of IV regressions are somewhat similar to those of OLS estimation, the 3-way interaction term is no more significant.
1. In this case, is it safe to say that the original OLS results are best estimates?
2. Should I inspect further for other issues? What other tests should I run?
3. Am I correct in instrumenting the interactions of exogenous and endogenous vars by using interactions of instruments and exogenous vars?
Since the equation is exactly identified (1 instrument per endogenous var), I do not get the Sargan stats.
Any help is appreciated.
Thanks in advance!
My question is regarding whether I should stick to OLS when no endogeneity is detected in my model.
I'm estimating the effect of some individual personality traits on individual performance. My N is above 300 and the OLS structure is as follows:
reg y x1 x2 x3 x4 x1x2 x1x3 x2x3 x1x2x3
where:
y -- dependent var (performance)
x1, x2, x3 -- explanatory vars (personality traits)
x4 -- vector of control vars
x1x2, x1x3, x2x3 -- 2way interaction terms
x1x2x3 -- 3way interaction term
Now, I'm told that x1 and x2 may be endogenous (there's not enough theoretical reason for that). I found 2 instrumental vars -- z1 and z2 (1 each for x1 and x2) -- and conducted IV regression by using Stata's own module and the extended version proposed by Baum, Schaffer, & Stillman.
1. Stata module:
ivregress 2sls y x4 (x1 x2 x1x2 x1x3 x2x3 x1x2x3 = z1 z2 z1z2 z1x3 z2x3 z1z2x3)
estat endog
The tests of endogeneity suggest that x1 and x2 are not endogenous.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Durbin (score) chi2(6) = 1.40071 (p = 0.9658)
Wu-Hausman F(6,339) = .222554 (p = 0.9694)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Baum et al. module:
ivreg2 y x4 (x1 x2 x1x2 x1x3 x2x3 x1x2x3 = z1 z2 z1z2 z1x3 z2x3 z1z2x3), endog (x1 x2)
Again, the tests suggest no endogeneity.
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Wu-Hausman F test: 0.22255 F(6,339) P-value = 0.96938
Durbin-Wu-Hausman chi-sq test: 1.40071 Chi-sq(6) P-value = 0.96582
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
While the results of IV regressions are somewhat similar to those of OLS estimation, the 3-way interaction term is no more significant.
1. In this case, is it safe to say that the original OLS results are best estimates?
2. Should I inspect further for other issues? What other tests should I run?
3. Am I correct in instrumenting the interactions of exogenous and endogenous vars by using interactions of instruments and exogenous vars?
Since the equation is exactly identified (1 instrument per endogenous var), I do not get the Sargan stats.
Any help is appreciated.
Thanks in advance!
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