Hopefully this kind of question is appropriate. I've done an analysis in the the outcome is a measure of affiliation with 12-step programs. These are not rate data based only on frequency of attendance. It's a published measure. The lower limit is 0 if the participant has never attended a 12-step meeting. All additional data are contingent on attendance. About 25% of the observations are at the lower limit of 0. Most definitions of censoring I've seen would say that a variable is censored if values less than or greater than some threshold of measurement are coded at the limit. In my case, it would imply that values < 0 are possible, but we couldn't observe them. Here, 0 is the lower limit and values less than 0 are not possible. However, I've also seen references in which censoring was used describe data at actual boundaries. E.g., students can't score < 0% or > 100% on an exam. I used censored regression to analyze these data and have a reviewer who insists the data are not censored. My question: Are my data censored at 0? I considered using a two-step selection model.
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