I am hoping to find some clarity as to how to interpret margins, and more specifically the marginscontplot package after negative binomial regression
In essence, my regression is as follows
My variable y is left skewed and overdispersed hence the choice of negative binomial. The conditional fixed effects should control somewhat for unobserved individual differences.
I am trying to graphically represent the marginal effect of x on y at various levels of the moderator z.
The results are consistent with my interpretation but the effect size seems extremely small
- y has mean 5 and standard deviation 10
- the marginal effects plot shows movements from -0.04 to +0.04.
What is the right interpretation for this? If it is percentage change then it would make sense and be economically significant. If these changes are absolute then it means that while the observed interaction is statistically significant, the real economic interpretation is that it barely matters. Or am I wrong?
Upon reading the section on log-transformation in Royston (2013) - the author of the package whom I emailed the same question - I started wondering whether something like this would be required after a negative binomial regression as well?
For as far as I know, xtnbreg uses a log link for its maximum-likelihood solution, which made me think it may be necessary to use the exponentials of the x and z values to get the true effects?
But once again I may be miles off. Any suggestions of the right interpretation or what need be done to get the proper graphs.
In addition, if I winsorize my response variable y, the standard deviation decreases a lot so that I could use
xtpoisson instead of xtnbreg. Would this change the interpretation/work needed to get the right effects?
Thanks
In essence, my regression is as follows
Code:
xtnbreg y X x c.x#c.x z c.x#c.z c.x#c.x#c.z, fe /* X is a vector of controls */
I am trying to graphically represent the marginal effect of x on y at various levels of the moderator z.
Code:
marginscontplot x z, at1(0(.1)1) at2(%5 25 50 75 95)
- y has mean 5 and standard deviation 10
- the marginal effects plot shows movements from -0.04 to +0.04.
What is the right interpretation for this? If it is percentage change then it would make sense and be economically significant. If these changes are absolute then it means that while the observed interaction is statistically significant, the real economic interpretation is that it barely matters. Or am I wrong?
Upon reading the section on log-transformation in Royston (2013) - the author of the package whom I emailed the same question - I started wondering whether something like this would be required after a negative binomial regression as well?
For as far as I know, xtnbreg uses a log link for its maximum-likelihood solution, which made me think it may be necessary to use the exponentials of the x and z values to get the true effects?
But once again I may be miles off. Any suggestions of the right interpretation or what need be done to get the proper graphs.
In addition, if I winsorize my response variable y, the standard deviation decreases a lot so that I could use
xtpoisson instead of xtnbreg. Would this change the interpretation/work needed to get the right effects?
Thanks
Comment