I am confused about the interpretation of the "rho" statistics reported by xtreg. It is supposed to be the "fraction of variance due to u_i", where u_i is the individual effect.
Consider the following example with a panel data set: ID is the cross-section identifier, YEAR is the time series identifier and Y is any numeric variable. Let's compare the "rho" from the following fixed effects regression and the R-squared of the subsequent OLS regression with cross-section dummy variables:
My intuition (which is clearly wrong) says that these two numbers should be the same. In the FE regression there are no other regressors included (only constant), so all the variation in Y must be explained by the individual effect (u_i) and the idiosyncratic error term. So rho should be the share of the variance in Y that is explained by the individual effects. In the second regression, the only regressors are the dummy variables for the levels of ID, so the R-squared should show the fraction of variance in Y explained by the dummies. But the two are not the same numerically, so there is a big mistake somewhere in my intuition. Could you tell me where?
Thanks a lot.
Consider the following example with a panel data set: ID is the cross-section identifier, YEAR is the time series identifier and Y is any numeric variable. Let's compare the "rho" from the following fixed effects regression and the R-squared of the subsequent OLS regression with cross-section dummy variables:
Code:
xtreg Y, fe // fixed effects regression with no other variables reg Y i.ID // pooled regression with dummy variables for each level of ID
Thanks a lot.
Comment