I ran the following regression based on 998 observations:
reg hce BNP o65 BD i.land i.year
To investigate the residuals I typed:
Predict res, residuals
To investigate these residuals I typed:
kdensity res, normal
This command gave me the attached figure. To my inexperinced eye the residuals looks kind of normally distriubuted. At least good enough.
But when I run a more formal test:
sktest res
I get:
Skewness/Kurtosis tests for Normality
------ joint ------
Variable | Obs Pr(Skewness) Pr(Kurtosis) adj chi2(2) Prob>chi2
-------------+---------------------------------------------------------------
res | 998 0.0000 0.0000 . 0.0000
Which means my residuals are not normally distributed.
My question is this: Is it ok to say that I assume normal distribution of the residuals in the analysis, or is this something I must pursue further?
reg hce BNP o65 BD i.land i.year
To investigate the residuals I typed:
Predict res, residuals
To investigate these residuals I typed:
kdensity res, normal
This command gave me the attached figure. To my inexperinced eye the residuals looks kind of normally distriubuted. At least good enough.
But when I run a more formal test:
sktest res
I get:
Skewness/Kurtosis tests for Normality
------ joint ------
Variable | Obs Pr(Skewness) Pr(Kurtosis) adj chi2(2) Prob>chi2
-------------+---------------------------------------------------------------
res | 998 0.0000 0.0000 . 0.0000
Which means my residuals are not normally distributed.
My question is this: Is it ok to say that I assume normal distribution of the residuals in the analysis, or is this something I must pursue further?
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