Hello Stata community,
I have a panel data set of regions within a country and regress the mortality rate due to drug abuse (deaths per 100,000) on the unemployment rate. For the moment I use a log-linear model with the following stata code:
So far, so good (I hope). Now I want to results by age and sex. However, this is somewhat difficult because by slicing my sample into different sub-groups by age and sex I create some sub-groups with some 0s. Thus my idea to use a Poisson model for the analysis of these sub-groups, something along the lines of:
(I hard code the dummies this time so ppml can work better with them).
So far this is very straight forward. But I think there might be a problem with the linear trend specification because most of the 0s in the mortality data happen to be in earlier years before the trend lifts them up. Thus, I think a linear trend might not be a good approximation for the mortality data per sub-group due to the 0s. In other words, there is no trend (or seasonality for that matter) as long as mortality is equal to 0 but, as soon as mortality takes up the first positive value, it exhibits a linear trend.
Do you have any recommendations of what to do in such a case? Should I just use a non-linear detrending method before running the regression, eg. a Hodrick-Prescott filter (although Hamilton says we should never use one)?
Any suggestions would be much appreciated
Thanks,
Max
I have a panel data set of regions within a country and regress the mortality rate due to drug abuse (deaths per 100,000) on the unemployment rate. For the moment I use a log-linear model with the following stata code:
Code:
reg ln(mortality) unemployment controls i.year region##c.year [iw=region_population], vce(cluster region)
Code:
ppml mortality unemployment controls year_dummies region_dummies region_trends [iw=region_population] ,cluster(region)
So far this is very straight forward. But I think there might be a problem with the linear trend specification because most of the 0s in the mortality data happen to be in earlier years before the trend lifts them up. Thus, I think a linear trend might not be a good approximation for the mortality data per sub-group due to the 0s. In other words, there is no trend (or seasonality for that matter) as long as mortality is equal to 0 but, as soon as mortality takes up the first positive value, it exhibits a linear trend.
Do you have any recommendations of what to do in such a case? Should I just use a non-linear detrending method before running the regression, eg. a Hodrick-Prescott filter (although Hamilton says we should never use one)?
Any suggestions would be much appreciated
Thanks,
Max
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