Hello everybody,
im am running a cox regression in order to assess whether individuals return to the labour market earlier after some legislation change. My treatment group is consisting of individuals in the year after the new law and the control group of individuals before the law change. The treated variable takes on value 1 if individuals are in the treatment group and 0 otherwise. Now, estimation results show that individuals respond to the law and return earlier but the treated variable does not survive the proportinality assumption test. (Which in my view is logic because whether you get into the treatment group depends on the timing of the law, or am i mistaken?)
My question now:
(1) when I interact time and treated to a new variable (interact=treated*_t), does the interpretation of the estimate stay the same? the treated hazard ratio was 1.3 meaning a higher chance to face the failure event. The interact estimate is 1.02 still meaning that the failure event is more likely for the treatment group?! , although there is a big drop in the effect.
(2) do i have to include both variables then, treated and interact?
If I need to clarify anything further, pls tell me
Kind regards
Tim
im am running a cox regression in order to assess whether individuals return to the labour market earlier after some legislation change. My treatment group is consisting of individuals in the year after the new law and the control group of individuals before the law change. The treated variable takes on value 1 if individuals are in the treatment group and 0 otherwise. Now, estimation results show that individuals respond to the law and return earlier but the treated variable does not survive the proportinality assumption test. (Which in my view is logic because whether you get into the treatment group depends on the timing of the law, or am i mistaken?)
My question now:
(1) when I interact time and treated to a new variable (interact=treated*_t), does the interpretation of the estimate stay the same? the treated hazard ratio was 1.3 meaning a higher chance to face the failure event. The interact estimate is 1.02 still meaning that the failure event is more likely for the treatment group?! , although there is a big drop in the effect.
(2) do i have to include both variables then, treated and interact?
If I need to clarify anything further, pls tell me
Kind regards
Tim
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