Hi,
I ran a glm model with a log link and the exp(b) (odds ratio) of the independent var x=1.007, which means that a 1 unit increase in x is associated with an increase in the predictive mean of y by 0.7% (PLEASE CORRECT ME IF I AM WRONG).
Now if i want to explain this relationship in terms of standard deviation knowing that std dev of x =8, then would it be correct to multiply 1.007 by 8(1.007*8=8.056)? if it is correct, can we say that 1 standard deviation increase in x is associated with ((8.056-1)*100)=705.6%) increase in the predictive mean of y?
Thx
I ran a glm model with a log link and the exp(b) (odds ratio) of the independent var x=1.007, which means that a 1 unit increase in x is associated with an increase in the predictive mean of y by 0.7% (PLEASE CORRECT ME IF I AM WRONG).
Now if i want to explain this relationship in terms of standard deviation knowing that std dev of x =8, then would it be correct to multiply 1.007 by 8(1.007*8=8.056)? if it is correct, can we say that 1 standard deviation increase in x is associated with ((8.056-1)*100)=705.6%) increase in the predictive mean of y?
Thx
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