Hi All,
I've estimated a survival model using stcox. One of the key covariates is an interaction between X1 (a continuous variable) and X2 (an indicator on a 1/0 scale). I'm using the margins command to compute the hazard ratio of a one-unit change in X1 at both values of the X2. My question concerns interpreting the results. Here's the code and output:
stcox dv c.X1##i.X2, robust nohr
margins X2, dydx(X1) atmeans noatlegend level(90)
Conditional marginal effects Number of obs = 872
Model VCE : Robust
Expression : Relative hazard, predict()
dy/dx w.r.t. : dv
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
| Delta-method
| dy/dx Std. Err. z P>|z| [90% Conf. Interval]
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
X1 |
X2 |
0 | .2511091 .2013735 1.25 0.212 -.0801209 .5823391
1 | .6222435 .3686444 1.69 0.091 .0158775 1.22861
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I assumed that the margins output contained hazard ratios (the output indicates "relative hazard" at the top). However, a hazard ratio close to 1.0 is an insignificant effect (where a hazard ratio < 1 indicates a negative effect and a hazard ratio >1 indicates a positive effect). Why, then, is margins computing the significance of X1 at the values of X2 as if 0 is an insignificant effect (notice the confidence interval at X2=0 is insignificant and contains 0).
Perhaps a better way of phrasing the question is: "What the heck does 0.2511 and 0.6222 in the output indicate?" Is it simply the increase in the size of the hazard ratio (where the interpretation at X2=0 would be a one-unit increase in X1 increases the probability of [the dependent variable occurring] by 25%).
Sorry, I know I'm missing something, but for the life of me I can't figure it out. Please help!
I've estimated a survival model using stcox. One of the key covariates is an interaction between X1 (a continuous variable) and X2 (an indicator on a 1/0 scale). I'm using the margins command to compute the hazard ratio of a one-unit change in X1 at both values of the X2. My question concerns interpreting the results. Here's the code and output:
stcox dv c.X1##i.X2, robust nohr
margins X2, dydx(X1) atmeans noatlegend level(90)
Conditional marginal effects Number of obs = 872
Model VCE : Robust
Expression : Relative hazard, predict()
dy/dx w.r.t. : dv
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
| Delta-method
| dy/dx Std. Err. z P>|z| [90% Conf. Interval]
-------------+----------------------------------------------------------------
X1 |
X2 |
0 | .2511091 .2013735 1.25 0.212 -.0801209 .5823391
1 | .6222435 .3686444 1.69 0.091 .0158775 1.22861
------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I assumed that the margins output contained hazard ratios (the output indicates "relative hazard" at the top). However, a hazard ratio close to 1.0 is an insignificant effect (where a hazard ratio < 1 indicates a negative effect and a hazard ratio >1 indicates a positive effect). Why, then, is margins computing the significance of X1 at the values of X2 as if 0 is an insignificant effect (notice the confidence interval at X2=0 is insignificant and contains 0).
Perhaps a better way of phrasing the question is: "What the heck does 0.2511 and 0.6222 in the output indicate?" Is it simply the increase in the size of the hazard ratio (where the interpretation at X2=0 would be a one-unit increase in X1 increases the probability of [the dependent variable occurring] by 25%).
Sorry, I know I'm missing something, but for the life of me I can't figure it out. Please help!
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