Hello everyone,
I am investigating taxable income differences for wage workers and self-employers
I made one summary table where for wage workers (mean = 45550, SD=42877) and for self-employers (mean = 41000, SD = 54920)
I made one kernal density graph to show the distribution of the taxable income for both groups (see attachments).
In this graph, there are higher outliers for wage workers.
My question:
If wage workers has higher outliers than self-employers. How can the standard deviation of self-employers be higher than the standard deviation of wage workers?
Thanks for your answer!
Patrick
I am investigating taxable income differences for wage workers and self-employers
I made one summary table where for wage workers (mean = 45550, SD=42877) and for self-employers (mean = 41000, SD = 54920)
I made one kernal density graph to show the distribution of the taxable income for both groups (see attachments).
In this graph, there are higher outliers for wage workers.
My question:
If wage workers has higher outliers than self-employers. How can the standard deviation of self-employers be higher than the standard deviation of wage workers?
Thanks for your answer!
Patrick
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