Dear Statalist,
I am doing a Hausman test in order to test the RE estimator against the FE estimator.
The dependent variable in the model is log(hourly_wage) and I have a set of explanatory variables (22 regressors in the FE model and 29 in the RE model) - among these variables there are nine year dummies.
My dataset is an unbalanced data set with approximately i=10.000 and T=10. The reason why the data set is unbalanced is that I only have observations for employed people with an hourly wage available in the data.
When testing the RE against FE estimator I write the following in Stata:
(Command 1)
xtreg y d2002 d2003 d2004 d2005 d2006 d2007 d2008 d2009 x1-x22, fe
estimates store fixed
xtreg y d2002 d2003 d2004 d2005 d2006 d2007 d2008 d2009 x1-x13, re
estimates store randon
hausman fixed random, sigmamore
When I run this I get chi2(22)=959.86 and Prob>chi2=0.0000 and the message "V_b-V_B is not positive definit".
From Wooldridge "Econometric Analysis of cross section and panel data" from 2010 page 333 I have found following:
"To summarize, we can estimate models that include aggregate time effects, time constant variables, and regressors that change across both i and t, by RE and FE estimation. But no matter how we compute a test statistic, we can only compare the coefficients on the regressors that change across both i and t. "
I have made a joint F test to find that the nine year dummy variables are significantly different from 0 and hence should be included in the FE and RE models.
What I read from the text stated from Wooldridge is that I cannot include my year-dummies in the two models when performing a Hausman test - or is this a wrong way to read it?
If i run the same command as a above - but without the nine year dummies - i get the following:
(Command 2)
If i xtreg y x1-x22, fe
estimates store fixed
xtreg y x1-x13, re
estimates store randon
hausman fixed random, sigmamore
chi2(13)=623.32 and Prob>chi2=0.0000.
Hence the message with not positiv definit is gone.
My question is how to handle this situation? Do I:
(1) Keep the year dummies in the model as in (Command 1) above and write that I have a variance which is not positiv definit and therefor can't use the test? OR
(2) Do I remove the dummy variables from the models as in (Command 2) and use the test and hereby go for the FE estimator?
I hope that someone can help me answer this question or maybe just help me realize something relevant that I have missed in the process.
Please let me know if there is anything crucial you need to know in order to help me solve this problem.
Thank you.
Kind Regards,
Cath
I am doing a Hausman test in order to test the RE estimator against the FE estimator.
The dependent variable in the model is log(hourly_wage) and I have a set of explanatory variables (22 regressors in the FE model and 29 in the RE model) - among these variables there are nine year dummies.
My dataset is an unbalanced data set with approximately i=10.000 and T=10. The reason why the data set is unbalanced is that I only have observations for employed people with an hourly wage available in the data.
When testing the RE against FE estimator I write the following in Stata:
(Command 1)
xtreg y d2002 d2003 d2004 d2005 d2006 d2007 d2008 d2009 x1-x22, fe
estimates store fixed
xtreg y d2002 d2003 d2004 d2005 d2006 d2007 d2008 d2009 x1-x13, re
estimates store randon
hausman fixed random, sigmamore
When I run this I get chi2(22)=959.86 and Prob>chi2=0.0000 and the message "V_b-V_B is not positive definit".
From Wooldridge "Econometric Analysis of cross section and panel data" from 2010 page 333 I have found following:
"To summarize, we can estimate models that include aggregate time effects, time constant variables, and regressors that change across both i and t, by RE and FE estimation. But no matter how we compute a test statistic, we can only compare the coefficients on the regressors that change across both i and t. "
I have made a joint F test to find that the nine year dummy variables are significantly different from 0 and hence should be included in the FE and RE models.
What I read from the text stated from Wooldridge is that I cannot include my year-dummies in the two models when performing a Hausman test - or is this a wrong way to read it?
If i run the same command as a above - but without the nine year dummies - i get the following:
(Command 2)
If i xtreg y x1-x22, fe
estimates store fixed
xtreg y x1-x13, re
estimates store randon
hausman fixed random, sigmamore
chi2(13)=623.32 and Prob>chi2=0.0000.
Hence the message with not positiv definit is gone.
My question is how to handle this situation? Do I:
(1) Keep the year dummies in the model as in (Command 1) above and write that I have a variance which is not positiv definit and therefor can't use the test? OR
(2) Do I remove the dummy variables from the models as in (Command 2) and use the test and hereby go for the FE estimator?
I hope that someone can help me answer this question or maybe just help me realize something relevant that I have missed in the process.
Please let me know if there is anything crucial you need to know in order to help me solve this problem.
Thank you.
Kind Regards,
Cath
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